/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
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Did the Treaty of Westphalia (1648) formalise existing concepts about nation-states, or break new ground?
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From a North American viewpoint, South American police seem easily corruptible, is there a historical reason for this?
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Hypothetically, how far back into history would one have to travel, in order for it to be still "safe" to have unprotected sex with a prostitute?
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